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  1. Which of the following is the best predictor of transmissibility of HIV between heterosexuals [1] ?
    A. CD4+ T lymphocyte counts
    B. Plasma HIV RNA load
    C. HIV Genotype
    D. History of opportunistic infections
    E. Noncompliance with combination antiretroviral therapy
  2. In adults who do not have diabetes mellitus, the most common location of osteomyelitis is [2]:
    A. Vertebrae
    B. Lower limb
    C. Upper limb
    D. Femoral head
    E. Site of trauma
  3. All of the following are true concerning the treatment of chronic Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) infection with pegylated interferon alpha (IFNa) and ribavirin EXCEPT [3]:
    A. PEG-IFNa + ribavirin leads to undetectable HCV RNA levels in ~50% of patients (48 weeks)
    B. Improvement in liver histopathology is observed in only a minority of patients
    C. Therapy may be stopped at 24 weeks for Genotypes 2 or 3
    D. Combination therapy is more than twice as effective as IFNa alone
    E. The combination therapy has similar side effects to IFNa used alone
  4. All of the following are true concerning Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) EXCEPT [4]:
    A. RSV immune globulin is FDA approved for prophylaxis in high risk persons
    B. Pneumonia and bronchiolitis are major complications of RSV infection
    C. Ribavirin, and antiviral agent, has shown clear efficacy in the treatment of RSV
    D. Prophylaxis against RSV using polyclonal or monoclonal immunoglobulins is very effective in reducing disease in premature infants
    E. Exposure to tobacco smoke make increase the risk of RSV induced bronchiolitis
  5. Which ONE of the following statements concerning Tropheryma whippelii is true [5] ?
    A. Systemic symptoms such as fever and lymphadenopathy are very unusual
    B. Laboratory evidence of malabsorption is present in <20% of cases
    C. Symptomatic central nervous system involvement is common
    D. PCR based detection in either RBC or mononuclear cells is now the gold standard
    E. T. whippelii is highly resistant to most oral antibiotics
  6. All of the following are true concerning Chlamydia trachomatis infection EXCEPT [6]:
    A. Dyscharge from early symptomatic infection is almost invariably purulent
    B. It is a common infection which is most often asymptomatic
    C. It is the most common cause of urethritis
    D. It causes Lymphogranuloma venerium (LGV) as well as urethritis
    E. Symptoms are usually milder than infection with gonococcus
  7. Which ONE of the following is true concerning the treatment of asymptomatic Chlamydia trachomatis infection [7] ?
    A. Patients treated chlamydia should be tested for gonorrhea and only treated if positive
    B. Ofloxacin used alone for 7 days is effective for chlamydia but not aginst gonococcus
    C. Doxycycline is more effective than azithromycin for the treatment of chlamydia
    D. A single dose of Azithromycin 1gm orally is effective and safe in pregnancy
    E. The sexual partner(s) of the affected person should be treated for chlamydia, but not for gonorrhea
  8. Which ONE of the following is true concerning influenza viruses [8] ?
    A. Antibodies appear within 1-2 days after infection
    B. Influenza viruses A and B are not cytopathic themselves; rather, the inflammatory response to then results in damage
    C. Neuraminidase inhibitors such as zanamivir are effective only against Influenza A
    D. Secondary bacterial infection is common, particularly in elderly and debilitated patients
    E. Development of full-blown viral interstitial pneumonia is common in normal hosts
  9. All of the following are true concerning the treatment of Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) EXCEPT [9]:
    A. Combining oral lamuvidine with IFNa provides minimal additional benefit to IFNa alone
    B. Treatment of HBV should be monitored monthly with HBV DNA, HBeAg, anti-HBe, and ALT
    C. Lamivudine typically reduces HBV levels to undetectable and levels remain below detection in most patients with the drug is stopped
    D. Around 20% of HBeAg+ patients treated with lamivudine seroconvert to HBeAb+ after 1 year
    E. Only about 25% of treated patients maintain lasting responses with IFNa
  10. All of the following are true concerning prophylaxis against opportunistic infections in patients with HIV on modern antiretroviral therapy (ART) EXCEPT [10]:
    A. Persons seropositive for Cytomegalovirus with CD4 cells <50/µL should be considered for prophylaxis
    B. Primary prophylaxis against Pneumocystis carinii can be stopped in patients on ART with CD>200/µL
    C. Toxoplasmosis prophylaxis is only recommended for patients with toxoplasma antibody titers (IgG+) and CD4 counts <100/µL or with previous infection
    D. Prophylaxis against Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare (MAI) can be discontinued if CD4+ T counts increase to >100/µL >3 months
    E. Rifabutin is as effective as azithromycin for prophylaxis against MAI
  11. Concerning Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), select the correct answer [11]:
    12. I. SARS causes a higher mortality rate in children than in adults
II. SARS is caused by a novel coronavirus with no homology to previously identified coronaviruses
III. SARS is mainly transmitted through fecal-oral routes
IV. Cough, shortness of breath, hypoxia and fever are most common symptoms

V. Ribavirin plus glucocorticoids have been shown to be more effective than general supportive care for the treatment of SARS
A. I, II, and III are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and IV are correct
D. IV is correct
E. V is correct
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Answers

  1. B
  2. A
  3. B (Histopathologic improvement seen in a majority of patients.)
  4. C
  5. E
  6. A
  7. D
  8. D
  9. C
  10. E
  11. C