Pre-Test 1 and 2: Introduction to Special Questions Based on Official NCLEX-RN[®]
38. A 42-year-old, who is gravida 1, para 0, has a successful in-vitro fertilization and is 7 weeks pregnant. Based on the client's history, a nurse knows the infant is at risk for:
Test-Taking Tip
The in-vitro fertilization has nothing to do with risk factors that affect an infant. The risk factor is the client's age of 42. Do not let the extraneous information distract from the true risk factor.
Content Area: Maternity, Antepartum; Integrated Process: Nursing Process, Analysis; Cognitive Level: Application; Client Need/Subneed: Health Promotion and Maintenance/Ante/Intra/Postpartum and Newborn Care
Pre-Test 1 and 2: Introduction to Special Questions Based on Official NCLEX-RN[®]
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Answer 1 is incorrect because respiratory distress syndrome is associated with preterm birth, not related to the age of the client at conception. Answer 2 is incorrect because there are no specific risk factors based on the information given that would put her infant at a higher risk for pathological jaundice. Pathological jaundice usually occurs with an ABO incompatibility. Answer 3 is incorrect because the mutation that causes the missing or altered X chromosome takes place spontaneously. There's no evidence that Turner's syndrome is hereditary or is caused by any other environmental or health factors. Answer 4 is correct because the client's age (42) puts her at a higher risk for an infant with Down syndrome.
